Clarify relationship between Functor and Applicative
ross at soi.city.ac.uk
Fri Feb 25 23:42:24 CET 2011
On Fri, Feb 25, 2011 at 05:34:18PM -0500, roconnor at theorem.ca wrote:
> In the applicative documentation, it says for an Applicative functor f:
> The Functor instance should satisfy
> fmap f x = pure f <*> x
> I think the documentation should be clarified that this does not
> need to be checked because it is a consequence of the other
> applicative laws.
> See <http://hpaste.org/44315/applicative_implies_functor>.
Do you have a proof that Functor instances are uniquely determined?
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