Clarify relationship between Functor and Applicative

Ross Paterson ross at
Fri Feb 25 23:42:24 CET 2011

On Fri, Feb 25, 2011 at 05:34:18PM -0500, roconnor at wrote:
> In the applicative documentation, it says for an Applicative functor f:
> The Functor instance should satisfy
>       fmap f x = pure f <*> x
> I think the documentation should be clarified that this does not
> need to be checked because it is a consequence of the other
> applicative laws.
> See <>.

Do you have a proof that Functor instances are uniquely determined?

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