[Haskell] Re: [Haskell-cafe] lazy patterns versus where-clauses
Stefan O'Rear
stefanor at cox.net
Thu Jun 21 12:18:02 EDT 2007
On Thu, Jun 21, 2007 at 06:13:22PM +0200, Peter Padawitz wrote:
> Is f(~p(x))=e(x) semantically equivalent to: f(z)=e(x) where p(x)=z?
Yes.
PS: I saw that twice
Stefan
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