[Haskell-cafe] why different type variables enforce different types?
ruihfazevedo at gmail.com
Wed Aug 1 05:49:22 UTC 2018
after using haskell for a while i was surprised by this little thing
and this is not making sense to me till now, so please can someone
enlighten me, why does haskell assume that b can not be the same type of a?
after all having two distinct math variables does not mean they can not
have the same value.
I know i could use f::a->a, but its not the same thing, on this last
case I'm requesting them to be the same type, but on the first I'm not
forbidding it, is there a math reason behind it?
would type inference be rendered impossible if considering the case of
them being equal?
Rui Azevedo (neu-rah)
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