[Haskell-cafe] question regarding the $ apply operator

[Ting Lei]

I know the Reverse Polish is not a couple of hundred years old. 
I have an impression of reading something about people writing natural 
deduction systems using only dots in place of parenthesis. And it is 
said that it was "natural" in those pre-historic times.

That's also why I had this (mis-)conception that ($) can be used to achieve
 something similar. It would be marginally interesting, since it saves us 
one character in the mental stack. I still remember looking at the parentheses
 in a lisp program.

Anyways, thanks for the clarifications.

On 19 July 2011 09:51, Maciej Marcin Piechotka <uzytkownik2 at gmail.com> wrote:
> On Tue, 2011-07-19 at 07:11 +0000, Ivan Lazar Miljenovic wrote:
>> The only thing that I can think of that matches this is Reverse Polish
>> Notation, and according to Wikipedia was about 90 years ago, not
>> hundreds ;-)
>>
>
> I may be wrong but weren't the RPN calculator slightly later then 90
> years ago? In any case according to wikipedia RPN was proposed in 1954
> so less then 60 years ago. (PN on the other hand was found around 90
> years ago).
 
You're right; I mis-read the wikipedia article whilst skimming it.
 
-- 
Ivan Lazar Miljenovic
Ivan.Miljenovic at gmail.com
IvanMiljenovic.wordpress.com
 
 		 	   		  
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