[Haskell-cafe] question regarding the $ apply operator

[Ivan Lazar Miljenovic]

On 19 July 2011 06:52, Ting Lei <tinlyx at hotmail.com> wrote:
>
> I read somewhere that people a couple of hundreds of years ago can manage to
> express things using ($)-like notation without any parenthesis at all.

The only thing that I can think of that matches this is Reverse Polish
Notation, and according to Wikipedia was about 90 years ago, not
hundreds ;-)

-- 
Ivan Lazar Miljenovic
Ivan.Miljenovic at gmail.com
IvanMiljenovic.wordpress.com