[Haskell-cafe] is proof by testing possible?

[Curt Sampson]

On 2009-11-09 14:22 -0800 (Mon), muad wrote:

> > Proof: True for n = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 (check!), hence true for all n. QED.
> > ...

Actually, the test is that it's true for 0 through 4 is not sufficient
for a proof; you also need to prove in some way that you need do no
further tests. Showing that particular point in this case appears to me
to lie outside the realm of testing.

cjs
-- 
Curt Sampson       <cjs at starling-software.com>        +81 90 7737 2974
           Functional programming in all senses of the word:
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