[Haskell-cafe] Re: Why?
sebastian.sylvan at gmail.com
Thu Dec 10 11:47:32 EST 2009
On Thu, Dec 10, 2009 at 4:15 PM, John D. Earle <JohnDEarle at cox.net> wrote:
> To elaborate there is another language that is also a functional
> language. I won't mention the name so as not to offend anyone. It too is
> effect free, that is what makes it functional and it is a functional
> language in the true sense of the term, but it is not effect free in the
> sense that Haskell is effect free. This other language is effect free in
> every practical sense whereas Haskell is effect free in a strict sense.
Why would anyone be offended? I'd prefer if you tried to be clear about what
you mean, rather than intentionally obscure your points to avoid
causing offence. Be specific. What language? How is it different than
Haskell w.r.t. purity?
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