[Haskell-cafe] A question about "monad laws"

ajb at spamcop.net ajb at spamcop.net
Fri Mar 14 02:28:21 EDT 2008


G'day all.

Quoting askyle <valgarv at gmx.net>:

> So you're either not taking (>=>) as primitive or you're stating the
> additional
> property that there exists (>>=) such that f >=> g  === (>>= g) . f
> (from which you can easily show that (f . g) >=> h === (f >=> h) . g ).

If you wanted to prove that bind is natural, you would need to define
bind, no?

Cheers,
Andrew Bromage


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