[Haskell-cafe] Where does ~> come from?
stefanor at cox.net
Wed Feb 20 19:26:58 EST 2008
On Wed, Feb 20, 2008 at 07:18:42PM -0500, Steve Lihn wrote:
> If ~> does not have any special meaning and it could be ### or xyz,
> then how does GHC know to print
> a ~> b, but not ~> a b
> a ### b, but not ### a b
> xyz a b, but not a `xyz` b
> Simply because xyz is alphanumeric?
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