[Haskell-cafe] C's fmod in Haskell
ok at cs.otago.ac.nz
Mon Sep 24 23:04:28 EDT 2007
On 25 Sep 2007, at 10:55 am, Thomas Conway wrote:
> This old chestnut! It's a common problem in practice. As I recall, the
> behaviour of C's % operator allows implementations to yield either
> behaviour. I just checked ISO 9899:1999 which defines fmod. It
> specifies that the result of fmod(x,y) should have the same sign as x.
Interesting, perhaps. Surprising, no. fmod() is basically there for
the sake of sin(), cos(), and tan() (or any other periodic and
either symmetric or antisymmetric function).
More information about the Haskell-Cafe