[Haskell-cafe] Re: Are type synonym families really equivalent
to fundeps?
Tom Schrijvers
Tom.Schrijvers at cs.kuleuven.be
Tue Sep 4 03:32:11 EDT 2007
> I think one can change my earlier proposal to include this, but there are zero
> examples of this syntax, so I am likely making up some syntax that does not exist:
>
> type instance (A_T a ~ A_T (RHS (Var x) a)) => A_B_C (RHS (Var x) a) (x->b) =
> A_B_C a b
>
> type instance (A_T a ~ A_T (RHS (Var x) a)) => A_C_B (RHS (Var x) a) c = x ->
> A_C_B a c
>
> type instance (A_T a ~ A_T (RHS [t] a)) => A_B_C (RHS [t] a) b = A_B_C a b
> type instance (A_T a ~ A_T (RHS [t] a)) => A_C_B (RHS [t] a) c = A_C_B a c
I am afraid you are right: this syntax does not exist. Type family
instances cannot have a context. They are unconditional.
Tom
--
Tom Schrijvers
Department of Computer Science
K.U. Leuven
Celestijnenlaan 200A
B-3001 Heverlee
Belgium
tel: +32 16 327544
e-mail: tom.schrijvers at cs.kuleuven.be
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