[Haskell-cafe] Very freaky
Steve Schafer
steve at fenestra.com
Thu Jul 12 16:58:44 EDT 2007
On Thu, 12 Jul 2007 20:36:47 +0100, you wrote:
>How come the set of all sets doesn't exist?
In naive set theory, the existence of the set of all sets leads to a
logical paradox. Specifically, the set of all sets would have to contain
as a member the set of all sets that are not members of themselves. Look
up "Russell's Paradox" in Wikipedia.
Steve Schafer
Fenestra Technologies Corp.
http://www.fenestra.com/
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