[Haskell-cafe] Re: Why is $ right associative insteadofleftassociative?

Brian Hulley brianh at metamilk.com
Sun Feb 5 15:33:25 EST 2006

Ben Rudiak-Gould wrote:
> Paul Hudak wrote:
>> Minor point, perhaps, but I should mention that : is not special
>> syntax -- it is a perfectly valid infix constructor.
> > <snip>
> ... but no more confusing than the fact that [f x | x <- xs] is
> not the same as (map f xs).

Can you explain why? On page 258 of Paul Hudak's book "The Haskell School of 
Expression" he states that do x<- xs; return (f x) is equivalent to [f x | x 
<- xs] "which is clearly just map f xs"

I can't find anything wrong with the example in the book but perhaps I've 
missed something?

Regards, Brian. 

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