[Haskell-cafe] Why is $ right associative instead of left associative?

[Stefan Holdermans]

Taral wrote:

> I think it's very natural. Everything after the $, including other $
> expressions, is applied to the stuff before the $. This saves me from
> a lot of nested parentheses.

To me, ($) helping me to avoid writing lots of parentheses, makes it  
extremely useful. Actually: except for passing function application  
to higher-order functions, this is the only way I use it. So, I  
always thought parentheses were *the* reason for the right- 
associativity of ($). Not sure if it really was originally, but, ever  
so, I think it is the best reason.

Regards,

   Stefan