[Haskell-cafe] Re: Justification for Ord inheriting from Eq?
stephen.forrest at gmail.com
Mon Apr 10 01:22:04 EDT 2006
On 4/7/06, Jared Updike <jupdike at gmail.com> wrote:
> > given an Ord instance (for a type T) a corresponding Eq instance can be
> > given by:
> > instance Eq T where
> > a == b = compare a b == EQ
> where did this second -----^ == come from? (I guess if if Ordering
> derives Eq :-) I think you meant
I think another poster essentially already said this, but the second
== comes from the Eq instance for type Ordering, which is in the
Prelude. So this we can actually rely on.
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