Should (~) be homogeneous or heterogeneous?
eir at cis.upenn.edu
Mon Nov 23 16:05:33 UTC 2015
> Naive question:
> Would it be "evil" or otherwise complicated to assume that (~) is
> heterogeneous only in the _presence_ of kind constraint? Or only when
> the kind can be inferred?
I'm afraid I don't understand. Do you mean that it's heterogeneous only when -XTypeInType is specified? That just might be possible, but I don't personally like it. Others might, though.
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