[Haskell-beginners] Re: Why is there no notion of a one-tuple (e.g.,
a '()' as opposed to a '') in Haskell?
wnoise at ofb.net
Wed Sep 24 19:26:33 EDT 2008
On 2008-09-24, Benjamin L.Russell <DekuDekuplex at Yahoo.com> wrote:
>>Haskell doesn't have a notion of a one-element tuple.
> Why not?
In addition to the syntactic nightmare mentioned, or the possible loss
of parenthesized expressions, it's just plain not necessary. Aside from
strictness, a one-tuple is isomorphic to the element inside. We like
category theory, so we ignore trivial isomorphisms.
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