[Haskell-beginners] Why is there no notion of a one-tuple (e.g.,
a '()' as opposed to a '') in Haskell?
jason.dusek at gmail.com
Thu Sep 25 03:56:26 EDT 2008
How is a 1-tuple different from a value? If we think of tuple
types as product types, then the 1-ary product is a simple
type -- and 1-ary tuples of values are simple values.
In Python, tuples really are like lists -- to the point of
being mapable, iterable, &c. In Haskell, lists and tuples
share very little.
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