[Haskell-beginners] Why is there no notion of a one-tuple (e.g., a '([])' as opposed to a '[]') in Haskell?

Jason Dusek jason.dusek at gmail.com
Thu Sep 25 03:56:26 EDT 2008

  How is a 1-tuple different from a value? If we think of tuple
  types as product types, then the 1-ary product is a simple
  type -- and 1-ary tuples of values are simple values.

  In Python, tuples really are like lists -- to the point of
  being mapable, iterable, &c. In Haskell, lists and tuples
  share very little.


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