<div dir="ltr">Awesome video, I watched it about ten times in a row and so many pennies dropped.</div><div class="gmail_extra"><br><div class="gmail_quote">On 25 November 2015 at 16:35, Stephen Renehan <span dir="ltr"><<a href="mailto:d11124067@mydit.ie" target="_blank">d11124067@mydit.ie</a>></span> wrote:<br><blockquote class="gmail_quote" style="margin:0 0 0 .8ex;border-left:1px #ccc solid;padding-left:1ex">Hi Matthew,<br>
<br>
Was just about to reply that I only have the process written in long<br>
hand from the video that I enclose but I see Francesco beat me to it<br>
with a more concise explanation. Thanks again Francesco :)<br>
<br>
<a href="https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ZhuHCtR3xq8" rel="noreferrer" target="_blank">https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ZhuHCtR3xq8</a><br>
<div class="HOEnZb"><div class="h5"><br>
<br>
On 25 November 2015 at 15:48, MJ Williams <<a href="mailto:matthewjwilliams101@gmail.com">matthewjwilliams101@gmail.com</a>> wrote:<br>
> [snip]<br>
><br>
>> I don't think there is a way to /prove/ f (g a) == g (f a) if their domain<br>
>> is not finite inside Haskell (you could do it with pen and paper).<br>
><br>
> [snip]<br>
> Just out of interest, could you demonstrate the proof without a<br>
> finite domain?<br>
><br>
> Sincerely, Matthew<br>
><br>
><br>
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